[2018 Testpassport] IBM C9020-668 test questions

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A customer has floor and rack space constraints.Which model should be included with a single frame IBM TS4500 L25?
A. Additional I/O station
B. Top rack with PDU
C. HD2 storage frame
D. Additional cartridge magazines
Answer: B

Which OpenStack component allows management of IBM XIV and IBM DS8884 through a dashboard that gives administrators control while empowering users to provision resources through a web interface?
A. Swift
B. Horizon
C. Cinder
D. Nova
Answer: B

A customer needs to exchange encrypted data cartridges with another company. A competitor offers a solution that encrypts the data with static keys loaded the tape drives. IBM proposes IBM TS1150 tape drives using the built-in encryption feature.Which competitive advantage does the IBM TS1150 solution provide?
A. It achieves better throughput by encrypting and compressing data at the same time.
B. It stores keys in the drive that can then be exported to partners in a secure format.
C. It compresses the data before encrypting to achieve a better compression ratio.
D. it writes a unique encrypted data key on the cartridge using public/private key pairs.
Answer: D

Which IBM products should the technical specialist propose to a customer who is using disk-based backups to meet regulatory requirements for low recovery time objectives?
A. IBM Spectrum Control Advance
B. IBM Spectrum Archive
C. IBM Spectrum protect
D. IBM Spectrum Control Base
Answer: C

A customer wants to improve storage efficiency within a data center. The customer requires a low latency storage system that has a highly parallel architecture and comprehensive data reduction with pattern removal.Which system should the technical specialist propose?
A. IBM DS8886 HPFE
B. IBM FlashSystem A9000R
C. IBM FlashSystem V9000
D. IBM XIV with compression
Answer: C

A customer wants to improve overall workload performance and is considering adding either an IBM Storwize V7000F or an IBM FlashSystem A9000 to the environment.Which key performance characteristic differentiates these two products?
A. Latency
B. Connect time
C. Cache hit rate
D. Queue time
Answer: A

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What must be configured for all IBGP speakers in an AS to have consistent routing information?
A. Partial mesh of EBGP sessions between EBGP speakers
B. Default routes to the IBGP gateways
C. Static routes to the EBGP gateways
D. Full mesh of IBGP sessions between IBGP speakers
Answer: D

Which two statements are correct about default BGP route propagation? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP speakers advertise IBGP-learned routes to other IBGP peers.
B. EBGP speakers advertise IBGP-learned routes to other EBGP peers by using apolicy.
C. IBGP speakers advertise EBGP-learned routes to other IBGP peers.
D. EBGP speakers advertise IBGP-learned routes to other EBGP peers.
Answer: B,C

Which two fields of a hello packet must match on both routers when forming an OSPF adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Hello interval
B. Designated route
C. Router priority
D. Network mask
Answer: A,D

You must configure an MX Series device to receive and forward a mixture of single-tag and dual-tag frames on interface xe-0/0/0. In this scenario what will accomplish goal?
A. xe-0/0/0 {flexible-vlan-tagging;}
B. xe-0/0/0 {stacked-vlan-tagging;}
C. xe-0/0/0 {vlan-vci-tagging;}
D. xe-0/0/0 {vlan-tagging;}
Answer: A

You want to save adjacency formation time between two routers participating in OSPF, as well as reduce the size of the OSPF link-state database.How would you accomplish these tasks?
A. Configure a virtual link.
B. Specify a designated router.
C. Specify a backup designated router.
D. Define a point-to-point connection.
Answer: D

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Share some Engineered Systems 1Z0-070 exam questions and answers below.
Which three statements are true about the EXADCLI utility?
A. It may be run interactively.
B. It can be used to execute EXACLI scripts on multiple storage servers in parallel.
C. It can be used to execute O/S commands on multiple storage servers in parallel.
D. It can be used to execute EXACLI commands on multiple storage servers in parallel.
E. It uses the same security mechanism as the EXACLI command.
F. It may be used to execute DBMCLI commands on multiple database nodes in parallel.
Answer: D,E,F

Which four are true about Exadata features?
A. Storage Indexes persist across Exadata storage server reboots.
B. Data Warehouse workloads will benefit from Smart Flash Cache configured in Write-Through mode.
C. Hybrid Columnar Compressed tables can be compressed and decompressed on Exadata storage servers.
D. Hybrid Columnar Compressed tables can be compressed and decompressed on the database servers.
E. OLTP workloads will benefit from Smart Flash Cache configured in Write-Back mode.
F. Storage Indexes persist across database server reboots.
Answer: C,D,E,F

Which two statements are true about Exadata X5 cell metrics and alerts?
A. Cell alerts on each storage server are accumulated in memory by the CELLSRV process and stored on a filesystem-based repository.
B. Cell metrics are written to disk every hour by default.
C. Cell metrics on each storage server are accumulated in memory by the CELLSRV process and written to a filesystem-based repository.
D. Cell alerts on each server are accumulated in memory by the MS process and stored on a filesystem-based repository.
E. Cell alerts are written to disk every hour by default.
Answer: B,D

A file contains a script with several EXACLI commands that must be executed on each cell in an X5 full rack.The script must run on each cell simultaneously.How would you achieve this?
A. Copy the script to all cells using the DCLI command and manually execute it on each cell using the DCLI command.
B. Copy the script to the cells using the EXACLI command and execute the script on all cells using the EXACLI command.
C. Execute it on all cells using the EXADCLI command specifying the file name containing the EXACLI script.
D. Copy the script to all cells using the CELLCLI command and execute it on all cells in parallel using the CELLCLI command.
E. Execute it on all cells using the DBMCLI command specifying the file name containing the EXACLI script.
Answer: C

You plan to migrate a database supporting an OLTP workload to your new X5 Database Machine.The current database instance supports a large number of short duration sessions and a very high volume of short transactions.Which three X5 Database Machine features can improve performance for this type of workload?
A. An improved highly efficient undo and redo architecture
B. Faster optimization due to an Exadata-specific optimizer
C. Reduced I/O latency for writes due to writeback flashcache on all Exadata X5 and later models
D. Ultra high I/O performance for reads and writes when using Exadata Extreme Flash in X5 and later models
E. Reduced I/O latency for reads due to read flashcache on all Exadata X5 and later models
Answer: A,C,D

Which three must be true for a Smart Scan to occur for a table?
A. cell_offload_processing must be true in sessions issuing SQL statements that access the table.
B. The query must be executed serially.
C. The query must be executed in parallel.
D. Direct path reads must be used at run time.
E. The ASM diskgroup containing the table’s tablespace must have a 4 Mbyte AU size.
F. The ASM diskgroup containing the table’s tablespace must have cell.smart_scan_capable set to true.
Answer: A,D,F

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[2018 New Update] Huawei H13-621-ENU test questions

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The source LUN of storage array remote copy is 500GB, which of the following LUN can be used as the subordinate LUN of remote copy?
A. 400G
B. 500G
C. 600G
D. 700G
Answer: B

What the common timing index in measure a system reliability? (Select two Answers)
A. reliability
B. efficient
C. the average of failure time
D. the average of fault-free time
Answer: C,D

Which of the following components do not belong to FC SAN network hardware?
A. HBA card
B. switches
C. storage device
D. server mainboard
Answer: D

A set of S5500 write policy set to write-back, after a controller lapsed, LUN’s write strategies will translate into through.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Which of the following belong to the products of OceanStor 18000 storage series? (Multiple Choice)
A. OceanStor 18500
B. OceanStor 18800
C. OceanStor 18800F
D. OceanStor 18900
Answer: ABC

In S5000T disks copy technology of the storage system, which two key parts are included? (Select two Answers)
A. failure prediction
B. data copy
C. disk offline
D. online alarm
Answer: A,B

The management mode of ISM integrated storage management software for storage array is the in-band management mode.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

When deploy N8000 system by ISM, which of the following characteristic of the management software are not used?
A. RAID, LUN, iSCSI, target device, connecting LUN creation
B. resource pool, snapshot, LUN copy deployment
C. support for the management of the basic characteristics of Symantec’s SF, SFS
D. the storage network management
Answer: D

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Scenario: A Citrix Administrator recently upgraded a XenApp 6.5 deployment to XenApp 7.15 LTSR.The administrator wants to implement a feature in XenApp 7.15 LTSR that is similar to Worker Groups in XenApp 6.5.Which option in XenApp 7.15 LTSR has similar functionality to Worker Groups in XenApp 6.5?
A. Delivery Groups
B. Featured App Groups
C. Application Groups Tagging
D. Application Groups Restricting
Answer: C

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 2000 virtual desktops. The hardware in the environment has a very fast SSD local storage, and the SAN is running almost at capacity. There is NO need for user-installed applications or persistency in the environment.Which provisioning method would allow the administrator to save SAN storage?
A. Provisioning Services
B. Manual Provisioning
C. Existing machines
D. Machine Creation Services
Answer: A

A Citrix Administrator is preparing to deploy 500 Windows 10 Virtual Desktops by using Machine Creation Services (MCS).How much storage space, at a minimum, needs to be allocated to the Identity Disks in this environment?
A. 32 Gb
B. 8 Gb
C. 16 Gb
D. 4 Gb
Answer: D

A Citrix Administrator needs to update a master image for random/non-persistent desktops based on Machine Creation Services.Which consequence does the administrator need to be aware of when updating the master image?
A. A full new vDisk will be created.
B. A new Personal vDisk will be created.
C. A new full copy from the snapshot will be created.
D. The differencing disks will be merged.
Answer: C

Scenario: A company maintains a XenDesktop infrastructure with a stand-alone license server. Recently, the license server had a hardware failure and can NO longer communicate on the network.The license server has a valid license file with a current Subscription Advantage (SA) date on it.What will happen to the XenDesktop environment with the license server now offline?
A. Users will immediately be unable to connect to their resources.
B. The license server will enter a 30-day grace period in which all user connections will work.
C. Users will have limited connections available during a 30-day grace period.
D. The license server will enter a 90-day grace period in which all user connections will work.
Answer: A

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[2018 New Version] Huawei HCNP-Storage H13-623-ENU practice questions

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Huawei storage supports a variety of disaster recovery networking, which of the following networking can meet the customers needs of RPO = 0? (Multiple choice)
A. HyperMetro dual active
B. Asynchronous remote replication
C. VIS dual active
D. Synchronize remote replication
Answer: ACD

When creating a VMware backup to start backup, what does the backup options include? (Multiple choice)
A. Integrated completely
B. The whole file
C. Differences
D. The entire virtual machine
Answer: AC

User backup client resources are sufficient, the production of network resources is relatively tight, the plan once a week the amount of data between 1 to 2T, the backup window is 3 hours, using the source de-duplication, de-duplication ratio is 3, the bandwidth utilization value of 0.8, what kind of networking are recommended for user to use in this environment?
A. GE LAN-Free
B. 10G LAN-Base
C. FC LAN-Free
D. Server-Free
Answer: A

File-level deduplication is also known as Single Instance Storage (SIS). According to the index to inspect the file attributes which need to be stored, and compares it with the stored file. If it does not have the same file, store it, and update the index. Otherwise, only deposited in the pointer to the existing file.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

About the target deduplication, which of the following description is not correct?
A. The data block is transferred from the source to the destination and de-duplicated at the destination.
B. Do not take up resources at the source.
C. Target deduplication is equivalent to post-processing deduplication.
D. Can not save transmission bandwidth.
Answer: C

Which of the following are the features of the Huawei OceanStor 5300 V3? (Multiple choice)
A. Support 16G FC/10G FCoE host interface
B. Adopt Active-Active redundant dual-controller
C. Support up to 4 pluggable interface cards
D. Built-in BBU+ data safe, has a variety of data protection technology
Answer: ABCD

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EXAM SECTION 1: Products and Concepts
EXAM SECTION 2: Installation and Configuration
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Which Symantec End point Protection defense mechanism provides protection against threats that propagate from system to system through the use of autotun.inf files?
A. Host Integrity
B. SONAR
C. Application and Device Control
D. Emulator
Answer: C

Which action should an administrator take to prevent users from using Windows Security Center?
A. Set Disable antivirus alert within Windows Security Center to Disable
B. Set Disable Windows Security Center to Always
C. Set Disable Windows Security Center to Disable
D. Set Disable antivirus alert within Windows Security Center to Never
Answer: B

A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client uses a management server list with three management servers in the priority 1 list.Which mechanism does the SEP client use to select an alternate management server if the currently selected management server is unavailable?
A. The client chooses another server in the list randomly.
B. The client chooses a server based on the lowest server load.
C. The client chooses a server with the next highest IP address.
D. The client chooses the next server alphabetically by server name.
Answer: A

Which two options are supported Symantec End point Manager authentication types? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. MS-CHAP
C. RSA SecurID
D. Biometrics
E. Network Access Control
Answer: A, C

Which task should an administrator perform to troubleshoot operation of the Symantec Endpoint Protection embedded database?
A. verify that dbsrv11.exe is listening on port 2638
B. check whether the MSSQLSERVER service is running
C. verify the sqlserver.exe service is running on port 1433
D. check the database transaction logs in X:Program FilesMicrosoft SQL server
Answer: A

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Under what circumstance would you enable LEARN as the Action on a firewall policy?
A. You want FortiGate to compile security feature activity from various security-related logs, such as virus and attack logs.
B. You want FortiGate to monitor a specific security profile in a firewall policy, and provide recommendations for that profile.
C. You want to capture data across all traffic and security vectors, and receive learning logs and a report with recommendations.
D. You want FortiGate to automatically modify your firewall policies as it learns your networking behavior.
Answer: B

You are tasked to architect a new IPsec deployment with the following criteria:
– There are two HQ sites that all satellite offices must connect to.
– The satellite offices do not need to communicate directly with other satellite offices.
– No dynamic routing will be used.
– The design should minimize the number of tunnels being configured.
Which topology should be used to satisfy all of the requirements?
A. Redundant
B. Hub-and-spoke
C. Partial mesh
D. Fully meshed
Answer: B

Which of the following Fortinet hardware accelerators can be used to offload flow-based antivirus inspection? (Choose two.)
A. SP3
B. CP8
C. NP4
D. NP6
Answer: C,D

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2018 New | Microsoft MCSA MB2-716 training material | MB2-716 Exam

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Configure Microsoft Dynamics 365 (20% – 25%)
Implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 entities, entity relationships, and fields (20% – 25%)
Create and manage Microsoft Dynamics 365 solutions, forms, views, and visualizations (25% – 30%)
Implement business rules, workflows, and business process flows (20% – 25%)

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Which statement regarding ordering of items in the mobile navigation menu is
A. Menu item placement is governed by mobile offline settings.
B. Menu item placement is based on the site map.
C. Most recently used entities appear first.
D. Menu items are displayed in alphabetical order.
Answer: A

Which three statements regarding form design or behavior for the mobile phone or tablet application are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The form selector is available.
B. The first five tabs will display.
C. Activities can be modified.
D. Tabs do not have the expand and collapse capability.
E. If business rules are changed while the mobile app is open, the app must be closed and reopened for those changes to apply.
Answer: ABC

You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential.
What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records?
A. The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
B. The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
C. The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
D. The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
Answer: D

Which two series aggregate functions are only available on numeric field data types?
Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Count: Non-empty
B. Count: All
C. Avg
D. Max
Answer: BC

You need to display data that is referenced by a lookup field on a form. Which option should you use?
A. Quick Find View
B. Associated View
C. Quick View
D. Public View
Answer: D

You export five modified system security roles from a development environment as an unmanaged solution. You solution into a production environment.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the import of the unmanaged solution?
A. Copies of security roles will be created automatically in the production environment.
B. The system security roles in production will be overwritten with the settings imported from the solution.
C. Security roles cannot be imported.
D. The import will fail because system security roles cannot be overwritten by importing a solution.
Answer: C

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